매달, 우리는 1000명 이상의 사람들이 시험 준비를 잘하고 시험을 잘 통과할 수 있도록 도와줍니다.
Certified Professional Coder (CPC)Exam 온라인 연습
최종 업데이트 시간: 2026년02월14일
당신은 온라인 연습 문제를 통해 AAPC CPC 시험지식에 대해 자신이 어떻게 알고 있는지 파악한 후 시험 참가 신청 여부를 결정할 수 있다.
시험을 100% 합격하고 시험 준비 시간을 35% 절약하기를 바라며 CPC 덤프 (최신 실제 시험 문제)를 사용 선택하여 현재 최신 100개의 시험 문제와 답을 포함하십시오.
정답:
Explanation:
For a complete bilateral mastectomy with insertion of breast prosthesis performed during the same surgical session, the correct CPT® codes are:
정답:
Explanation:
In coding burns, ICD-10-CM guidelines indicate that each burn site is coded separately, specifying the degree, location, and extent of the burn. Additionally, a code for total body surface area (TBSA) burned is included when burns cover more than 10% of the body.
Here’s the breakdown:
정답:
Explanation:
For this encounter, ICD-10-CM guidelines dictate that a myocardial infarction (MI) that occurs within four weeks (28 days) of an initial MI is considered to be in the acute phase. Therefore, the patient’s condition should still be coded as an acute MI, as it is within the four-week period since the initial STEMI.
B. I21.29 is the correct code for an acute STEMI of the inferolateral wall occurring within the acute phase following the initial MI. The code I21.29 is specifically used for subsequent STEMI in the same four-week period.
Explanation of incorrect options:
A. I22.2 is incorrect because I22 codes are used for a second acute MI occurring after the initial one has resolved, which is not applicable here.
C. I21.19 and
D. I21.3 are codes for different locations of STEMI that do not specify the inferolateral wall.
Therefore, the correct answer is B. I21.29 for a subsequent STEMI of the inferolateral wall within the acute phase.
정답:
Explanation:
In this encounter, the correct coding order follows ICD-10-CM guidelines for coding multiple conditions when AIDS (B20) is documented, as it takes precedence. The patient's diagnosis of AIDS, documented with code B20, is reported as the primary diagnosis since it is a chronic condition. The M17.31 code is used to document unilateral primary osteoarthritis of the right knee, unrelated to AIDS but causing the patient's knee pain.
Explanation of each answer choice:
A. B20, M17.31: Correctly lists AIDS (B20) as the primary diagnosis and osteoarthritis of the right knee (M17.31) as the secondary diagnosis.
B. Z21, M08.861: Z21 represents asymptomatic HIV, not AIDS, which is incorrect here, and M08.861 is the code for juvenile idiopathic arthritis, not relevant in this case.
C. M17.11, B20: Incorrect as M17.11 is for unilateral primary osteoarthritis of the right knee, not left, and does not prioritize B20 as required.
D. M17.31, B20: Incorrect because it does not list B20 as the primary diagnosis, which is necessary per coding guidelines when AIDS is documented.
Thus, the correct answer is A. B20, M17.31.
정답:
Explanation:
For a patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus and diabetic retinopathy with macular edema in the right eye, the correct ICD-10-CM code is E10.3511.
This code specifically captures:
E10: Type 1 diabetes mellitus.
35: Diabetic retinopathy with macular edema.
1: Right eye.
Each choice addresses different severities or eye specifications:
A. E10.3211: Indicates mild nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy with macular edema in the right eye, not the general diabetic retinopathy category.
B. E10.3519: Refers to diabetic retinopathy with macular edema without specification to the right eye.
D. E10.311: Refers to nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy without macular edema in the right eye.
Thus, the correct answer is C. E10.3511, as it fully captures type 1 diabetes with diabetic retinopathy with macular edema in the right eye.
정답:
Explanation:
To accurately code a pressure ulcer in ICD-10-CM, the code must reflect the ulcer's location and stage. The codes for pressure ulcers specify both the anatomical site and the stage (extent of tissue damage).
L89.613 represents a pressure ulcer on the right heel at stage 3. The stage is critical as it indicates the severity of the ulcer, with stage 3 involving full-thickness skin loss and possibly visible subcutaneous tissue.
A. L89.609 refers to a pressure ulcer on the heel but without specific staging.
C. L89.619 is for a pressure ulcer on the right heel at stage 4, which indicates a more severe level of tissue damage than stage 3.
D. L89.603 represents a stage 3 pressure ulcer but on the left heel, not the right.
Therefore, the correct answer is B. L89.613 for a stage 3 pressure ulcer on the right heel.
정답:
Explanation:
According to ICD-10-CM coding guidelines for substance use, abuse, and dependence, when multiple levels (use, abuse, and dependence) of the same substance are documented, only the highest level of severity is coded. The hierarchy is as follows: dependence > abuse > use.
D. If both use and dependence are documented, assign only the code for dependence is correct, as dependence represents the highest severity level and supersedes both use and abuse.
A. is incorrect because if both use and abuse are documented without dependence, only abuse would be coded as it is of a higher severity than use.
B. is incorrect because all three codes (use, abuse, dependence) should not be reported together; only the highest level should be coded.
C. is incorrect because if both abuse and dependence are documented, only dependence (the higher severity level) should be coded, not abuse.
Therefore, the correct answer is D. If both use and dependence are documented, assign only the code for dependence.
정답:
Explanation:
In CPT® Surgery Guidelines, a "separate procedure" code is used to identify a service that is typically performed as part of a larger procedure and should not be coded separately when it is an integral component of that primary service. However, it may be reported independently if it is performed
alone or is unrelated to the primary procedure.
A. is true because a separate procedure may be reported if it is performed independently or is unrelated to the primary procedure.
B. is true, as "separate procedure" codes are not reported in addition to the code for the primary procedure when they are part of the total procedure.
C. is correct because "separate procedure" designation indicates that the service is often part of a more comprehensive procedure but can be reported separately when performed alone.
D. is false because modifier 79 is not used for unrelated "separate procedures." Instead, modifier 59 is typically used to indicate a "distinct procedural service" when reporting a separate procedure that is unrelated to the primary service.
Therefore, the correct answer is D. To identify a service designated as a "separate procedure" that is reported with an unrelated primary service, append modifier 79 to the code.
정답:
Explanation:
In ICD-10-CM coding, personal history codes are used to indicate a patient’s past medical conditions that no longer exist and are not receiving active treatment, but that may influence current care or
require continued monitoring.
A. is correct because a personal history code can indeed be reported as a primary code if the encounter is specifically for screening due to a past condition.
B. is correct because personal history codes can be reported with follow-up codes to indicate that the patient is being monitored for recurrence of the past condition.
D. is correct because a personal history code is used when the patient no longer has or is being treated for that condition, but it remains relevant to the patient’s health history.
C. is false because a personal history code is not used indiscriminately on any medical record; it is only appropriate when the past condition is relevant to the current encounter or impacts current patient care.
Therefore, the correct answer is C. A personal history code is acceptable on any medical record regardless of the reason of the visit.
정답: C
Explanation:
According to ICD-10-CM Guidelines, I11A.0 (Resistant hypertension) is used to indicate hypertension that remains uncontrolled despite the use of multiple antihypertensive medications. Resistant hypertension is coded to highlight the severity of the patient’s condition and the difficulty in managing their blood pressure. This code is added as a secondary code to reflect the persistent elevation of blood pressure despite medication.
A. I10 (Essential hypertension) is a general code for primary hypertension but does not specify resistance to treatment.
B. A code from category I27 is related to pulmonary heart diseases, not directly related to hypertension management issues.
D. A code from category I16 (Hypertensive crisis) is used for hypertensive emergencies or urgencies, which are acute episodes, not persistent uncontrolled hypertension despite treatment.
Thus, the correct answer is C. I11A.0, Resistant hypertension.
정답:
Explanation:
In the CPT® code book, code 35860 describes an "Exploration for postoperative hemorrhage, thrombosis or infection" in multiple areas, specifically including the neck, chest, abdomen, and/or extremity. This code is used when a surgeon explores these areas postoperatively to locate and address complications such as bleeding, clots, or infections.
B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not fully encompass all the areas listed in the actual description of CPT® code 35860, which includes all four regions (neck, chest, abdomen, and extremity).
Thus, the correct answer is A. Exploration for postoperative hemorrhage, thrombosis or infection; neck, chest, abdomen, and/or extremity.
정답:
Explanation:
When a therapeutic colonoscopy is attempted but does not reach the cecum, it is considered an incomplete procedure. According to the CPT® Colonoscopy Decision Tree, if the colonoscopy extends beyond the splenic flexure but does not reach the cecum, the appropriate way to code this incomplete colonoscopy is by appending modifier 53 to indicate a discontinued procedure due to extenuating circumstances or risk to the patient.
A. 45378-53 is the correct answer as it designates a diagnostic colonoscopy with modifier 53, signifying that the procedure was started but not completed.
B. 45330 is incorrect as it represents a sigmoidoscopy, which only goes up to the splenic flexure.
C. 45331-45347 refers to therapeutic colonoscopies that were completed to the cecum.
D. 45379-45398 with modifier 52 is incorrect because modifier 52 is used for reduced services, which does not accurately describe an incomplete colonoscopy.
Thus, the correct answer is A. 45378-53.
정답:
Explanation:
In ICD-10-CM coding, an Excludes2 note under a code indicates that the condition listed in the note is not included in the definition of the code, but it does not necessarily mean they cannot coexist. This type of note means that while the conditions are distinct, it may be appropriate to report both codes if a patient has both conditions at the same time.
A. is incorrect because Excludes1, not Excludes2, indicates that certain codes should not be reported together.
C. is a description of an Excludes1 note, which implies that the two conditions should not be coded together because they cannot occur simultaneously.
D. is also a description of an Excludes1 note, which serves as a "NOT CODED HERE!" directive.
Therefore, the correct answer is B. It is acceptable to report both the code and the excluded code together, when applicable.
정답:
Explanation:
Medical necessity is determined by whether a procedure or treatment is necessary to treat or manage a health condition. Removing excess skin after significant weight loss from a gastric bypass often meets medical necessity criteria because excess skin can lead to physical complications, such as infections, rashes, and mobility issues. Insurance companies are more likely to cover this procedure when it's needed to alleviate health issues rather than for cosmetic purposes.
A. Speech therapy for a lisp: Typically, therapy for minor speech impediments like a lisp may not be deemed medically necessary unless it severely affects communication or daily functioning.
B. Tummy tuck after a pregnancy: This procedure is generally classified as cosmetic and not
medically necessary, as it is often done to improve appearance rather than address a health condition.
C. Second rhinoplasty for a smaller nose: This would likely be considered elective and cosmetic, especially if it is solely for aesthetic preference without any health-related issues.
Thus, the correct answer is D. Removing excess skin in losing weight from a gastric bypass, as it can be essential for physical health and quality of life.
정답:
Explanation:
Medicare Part B provides coverage for outpatient services, including physician services, preventive care, outpatient procedures, diagnostic tests, and durable medical equipment. Part B is a key component of Medicare, covering medically necessary services and some preventive services.
A. Part C (Medicare Advantage) includes all benefits and services covered under Parts A and B and often additional services, but it is provided through private insurance companies.
C. Part A covers inpatient hospital care, skilled nursing facility care, hospice, and some home health services.
D. Part D provides coverage for prescription drugs.
Therefore, the correct answer is B. Part B.