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Shared Assessments CTPRP 시험

Certified Third-Party Risk Professional (CTPRP) 온라인 연습

최종 업데이트 시간: 2026년03월09일

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시험을 100% 합격하고 시험 준비 시간을 35% 절약하기를 바라며 CTPRP 덤프 (최신 실제 시험 문제)를 사용 선택하여 현재 최신 125개의 시험 문제와 답을 포함하십시오.

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Question No : 1


Which of the following components are typically NOT part of a cloud hosting vendor assessment program?

정답:
Explanation:
A cloud hosting vendor assessment program is a process of evaluating the security, compliance, and performance of a cloud service provider (CSP) that hosts an organization’s data or applications. A cloud hosting vendor assessment program typically includes the following components123:
Reviewing the entity’s image snapshot approval and management process: This component involves verifying how the CSP creates, approves, stores, and deletes image snapshots of the virtual machines or containers that run the organization’s workloads. Image snapshots can contain sensitive data or configuration settings that need to be protected from unauthorized access or modification.
Requiring security services documentation and audit attestation reports: This component involves requesting and reviewing the CSP’s documentation and reports that demonstrate the security controls and practices that the CSP implements to protect the organization’s data and applications. These may include service level agreements (SLAs), security policies and procedures, security certifications and standards, vulnerability scanning and patching reports, incident response and disaster recovery plans, and independent audit reports such as SOC 2 or ISO 27001.
Requiring compliance evidence that provides the definition of patching responsibilities: This component involves asking and verifying how the CSP handles the patching of the operating systems, applications, and libraries that run on the cloud infrastructure. Patching is a critical activity to prevent security breaches and ensure compliance with regulatory requirements. The organization needs to understand the roles and responsibilities of the CSP and the organization in patching the cloud environment, and the frequency and scope of patching activities.
The component that is typically NOT part of a cloud hosting vendor assessment program is conducting customer performed penetration tests. Penetration testing is a method of simulating a cyberattack on a system or network to identify and exploit vulnerabilities and weaknesses. While penetration testing can be a valuable tool to assess the security posture of a CSP, it is not usually included in a cloud hosting vendor assessment program for the following reasons:
Penetration testing may violate the CSP’s terms of service or acceptable use policy, which may prohibit or restrict the customer from performing any unauthorized or disruptive activities on the cloud infrastructure. The customer may face legal or contractual consequences if they conduct penetration testing without the CSP’s consent or knowledge.
Penetration testing may interfere with the CSP’s normal operations or affect the availability and performance of the cloud services for other customers. The customer may cause unintended damage or disruption to the CSP’s systems or networks, or trigger false alarms or alerts that may divert the CSP’s resources or attention.
Penetration testing may not provide a comprehensive or accurate assessment of the CSP’s security, as the customer may have limited visibility or access to the CSP’s internal systems or networks, or may encounter security mechanisms or countermeasures that prevent or limit the penetration testing activities. The customer may also face ethical or legal issues if they access or compromise the data or systems of other customers or the CSP.
Therefore, the verified answer to the question is
D. Conducting customer performed penetration tests.
Reference: Four Important Best Practices for Assessing Cloud Vendors Top 11 Questionnaires for IT Vendor Assessment in 2024 Cloud Vendor Assessments | Done The Right Way [Penetration Testing in the Cloud: What You Need to Know] [Cloud Penetration Testing: Challenges and Best Practices]

Question No : 2


You are reviewing assessment results of workstation and endpoint security.
Which result should trigger more investigation due to greater risk potential?

정답:
Explanation:
Workstation and endpoint security refers to the protection of devices that connect to a network from malicious actors and exploits1. These devices include laptops, desktops, tablets, smartphones, and IoT devices. Workstation and endpoint security can involve various measures, such as antivirus software, firewalls, encryption, authentication, patch management, and device management1.
Among the four options, the use of multi-tenant laptops poses the greatest risk potential for workstation and endpoint security. Multi-tenant laptops are laptops that are shared by multiple users or organizations, such as in a cloud-based environment2. This means that the laptop’s resources, such as memory, CPU, storage, and network, are divided among different tenants, who may have different security policies, requirements, and access levels2. This can create several challenges and risks, such as:
Data leakage or theft: If the laptop is not properly isolated or encrypted, one tenant may be able to access or compromise another tenant’s data or applications2. This can result in data breaches, identity theft, or compliance violations.
Malware infection or propagation: If one tenant’s laptop is infected by malware, such as ransomware, spyware, or viruses, it may spread to other tenants’ laptops through the shared network or storage2. This can disrupt the laptop’s performance, functionality, or availability, and cause damage or loss of data or applications.
Resource contention or exhaustion: If one tenant’s laptop consumes more resources than allocated, it may affect the performance or availability of other tenants’ laptops2. This can result in slow response, poor user experience, or service degradation or interruption.
Configuration or compatibility issues: If one tenant’s laptop has different or conflicting settings, preferences, or applications than another tenant’s laptop, it may cause errors, crashes, or compatibility problems2. This can affect the laptop’s functionality, reliability, or usability.
Therefore, the use of multi-tenant laptops should trigger more investigation due to greater risk
potential, and require more stringent and consistent security controls, such as:
Segmentation or isolation: The laptop should be logically or physically separated into different segments or zones for each tenant, and restrict the communication or interaction between them2. This can prevent unauthorized access or interference between tenants, and limit the impact of a security incident to a specific segment or zone.
Encryption or obfuscation: The laptop should encrypt or obfuscate the data and applications of each tenant, and use strong encryption keys or algorithms2. This can protect the confidentiality and integrity of the data and applications, and prevent data leakage or theft.
Antivirus or anti-malware: The laptop should install and update antivirus or anti-malware software, and scan the laptop regularly for any malicious or suspicious activities2. This can detect and remove any malware infection or propagation, and prevent damage or loss of data or applications.
Resource allocation or management: The laptop should allocate or manage the resources of each tenant, and monitor the resource consumption and utilization2. This can ensure the performance or availability of the laptop, and prevent resource contention or exhaustion.
Configuration or standardization: The laptop should configure or standardize the settings, preferences, or applications of each tenant, and ensure the compatibility or interoperability between them2. This can avoid errors, crashes, or compatibility issues, and improve the functionality, reliability, or usability of the laptop.
Reference:
1: What is Desktop Virtualization? | IBM1
2: Multitenant organization scenario and Microsoft Entra capabilities2

Question No : 3


All of the following processes are components of controls evaluation in the Third Party Risk Assessment process EXCEPT:

정답:
Explanation:
Controls evaluation is the process of verifying and validating the effectiveness of the controls implemented by the third party to mitigate the identified risks. It involves reviewing the evidence provided by the third party, such as policies, procedures, certifications, attestations, or test results, to determine if the controls are adequate, consistent, and compliant with the requirements and standards of the organization. Controls evaluation also involves analyzing the assessment results to identify any gaps, weaknesses, or issues in the third party’s controls, and reporting the findings and recommendations to the relevant stakeholders. Negotiating contract terms for the right to audit is not a component of controls evaluation, but rather a component of contract management. Contract management is the process of establishing, maintaining, and enforcing the contractual agreements between the organization and the third party. It involves defining the roles, responsibilities, expectations, and obligations of both parties, as well as the terms and conditions for service delivery, performance measurement, risk management, dispute resolution, and termination. Negotiating contract terms for the right to audit is a key aspect of contract management, as it allows the organization to monitor and verify the third party’s compliance with the contract and the applicable regulations and standards. It also enables the organization to conduct independent audits or assessments of the third party’s controls, processes, and performance, and to request remediation actions if necessary.
Reference:
1: Shared Assessments, a leading provider of third party risk management solutions, offers a comprehensive guide for Certified Third Party Risk Professional (CTPRP) candidates, which covers the core concepts and best practices of third party risk management, including controls evaluation and contract management.
2: UpGuard, a platform for cybersecurity and third party risk management, provides a detailed overview of the best practices for third party risk assessment, which includes the steps and criteria for evaluating the controls of third parties.
3: Deloitte, a global professional services firm, offers an end-to-end managed service for third party risk management, which includes controls evaluation and contract management as key components of the service.

Question No : 4


Which statement is FALSE when describing the third party risk assessors’ role when conducting a controls evaluation using an industry framework?

정답:
Explanation:
According to the Shared Assessments Certified Third Party Risk Professional (CTPRP) Study Guide, the third party risk assessor’s role is to evaluate the design and operating effectiveness of the third party’s controls based on an industry framework, such as ISO, NIST, COBIT, or COSO1. The assessor’s role is not to provide an opinion on the effectiveness of controls, but rather to report the results of the evaluation in a factual and objective manner2. The assessor’s role is also to conduct discovery with subject matter experts to understand the control environment, to conduct discovery and validate responses from the risk assessment questionnaire by testing or validating controls, and to review compliance artifacts and identify potential control gaps based on evaluation of the presence of control attributes1. These are all true statements that describe the assessor’s role when conducting a controls evaluation using an industry framework.
Reference:
1: Shared Assessments Certified Third Party Risk Professional (CTPRP) Study Guide, page 29
2: What is a Third-Party Risk Assessment? ― RiskOptics

Question No : 5


Which of the following is NOT a key component of TPRM requirements in the software development life cycle (SDLC)?

정답:
Explanation:
In the context of Third-Party Risk Management (TPRM) requirements within the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC), a process for data destruction and disposal is not typically considered a key component. The primary focus within SDLC in TPRM is on ensuring secure software development practices, which includes maintaining artifacts to prove that SDLC gates are executed, conducting software security testing, and having processes in place for fixing security defects. While data destruction and disposal are important security considerations, they are generally associated with data lifecycle management and information security management practices rather than being integral to the SDLC process itself.
Reference: Best practices in secure software development, as outlined in frameworks like the Secure Software
Development Framework (SSDF) by NIST, emphasize the importance of secure coding, vulnerability testing, and remediation processes rather than data disposal practices.
The "Software Security Framework (SSF)" by the Open Web Application Security Project (OWASP) provides guidance on integrating security practices into the SDLC, focusing on areas like threat modeling, secure coding, and security testing.

Question No : 6


An organization has experienced an unrecoverable data loss event after restoring a system.
This is an example of:

정답:
Explanation:
An unrecoverable data loss event after restoring a system is indicative of a failure to meet the Recovery Point Objective (RPO). The RPO represents the maximum tolerable period in which data might be lost due to an incident and is a critical component of an organization's disaster recovery and business continuity planning. If data restoration efforts are unsuccessful and lead to unrecoverable data loss, it means that the organization's data backup and recovery processes were insufficient to meet the defined RPO, leading to a loss of data beyond the acceptable threshold. This situation underscores the importance of implementing effective data backup and recovery strategies that align with the organization's RPO to minimize data loss and ensure business continuity in the event of a disruption.
Reference: Business continuity and disaster recovery standards, such as ISO 22301 (Security and Resilience - Business Continuity Management Systems - Requirements), provide guidelines on establishing and managing RPOs as part of a comprehensive business continuity plan.
The "Disaster Recovery Planning Guide" by the Disaster Recovery Journal (DRJ) offers insights into best practices for data backup and recovery, emphasizing the importance of aligning recovery strategies with defined RPOs to minimize the impact of data loss incidents.

Question No : 7


Which of the following factors is LEAST likely to trigger notification obligations in incident response?

정답:
Explanation:
Notification obligations in incident response are the legal or contractual duties to inform relevant parties about a security breach or incident that affects their data or systems. These obligations may vary depending on the type, scope, and impact of the incident, as well as the jurisdiction, industry, and contractual agreements involved. The factors that are most likely to trigger notification obligations are:
Regulatory requirements: Different laws and regulations may impose different notification obligations on organizations that experience or cause a security incident. For example, the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) requires data controllers to notify the supervisory authority within 72 hours of becoming aware of a personal data breach, and to notify the affected data subjects without undue delay if the breach poses a high risk to their rights and freedoms1. Similarly, the Computer-Security Incident Notification Rule requires banks and their service providers to notify their primary federal regulator as soon as possible, but no later than 36 hours, after a computer-security incident that materially disrupts, degrades, or impairs their operations, services, or customers2.
Data classification or sensitivity: The type and sensitivity of the data involved in a security incident may also affect the notification obligations. For example, if the data contains personally identifiable information (PII), health information, financial information, or other confidential or sensitive information, the organization may have to notify the data owners, regulators, law enforcement, or other stakeholders about the incident and the potential risks to their privacy or security3. The data classification or sensitivity may also determine the content and timing of the notification, as well as the appropriate communication channels to use.
Contractual terms: The contractual agreements between an organization and its third-party vendors or service providers may also specify the notification obligations in case of a security incident. For example, the contract may define the roles and responsibilities of each party, the notification procedures and timelines, the information to be shared, the remediation actions to be taken, and the penalties or liabilities for breach of contract. The contractual terms may also reflect the regulatory requirements or industry standards that apply to the organization or the third party.
The factor that is least likely to trigger notification obligations is:
Encryption of data: Encryption of data is a security measure that protects the data from unauthorized access, modification, or disclosure. Encryption of data may reduce the impact or severity of a security incident, as it may prevent or limit the exposure of the data to malicious actors. However, encryption of data does not eliminate the notification obligations, as the organization still has to assess the nature and extent of the incident, and determine whether the encryption was effective or compromised. Moreover, encryption of data may not be sufficient to protect the data from other types of threats, such as deletion, corruption, or ransomware. Therefore, encryption of data is not a factor that influences the notification obligations in incident response.
Reference:
1: GDPR Article 33: Notification of a personal data breach to the supervisory authority
2: Computer-Security Incident Notification Rule
3: Third-Party Incident Management (TPIM): How to Balance IRPs with Third Parties
: [Improving Third-Party Incident Response]
: [Third-Party Incident Response Playbook]
: [Does Encryption Protect You From a Data Breach?]

Question No : 8


Which factor in patch management is MOST important when conducting postcybersecurity incident analysis related to systems and applications?

정답:
Explanation:
In patch management, testing is the most crucial factor when conducting post-cybersecurity incident analysis related to systems and applications. Proper testing of patches before deployment ensures that they effectively address vulnerabilities without introducing new issues or incompatibilities that could impact system functionality or security. Testing allows organizations to verify that the patch resolves the identified security issue without adversely affecting the system or application's performance. It also helps in identifying potential conflicts with existing configurations or dependencies. Effective testing strategies include regression testing, performance testing, and security testing to ensure comprehensive validation of the patch's effectiveness and safety before widespread deployment. This approach aligns with best practices in patch management, emphasizing the importance of thorough testing to mitigate the risk of unintended consequences and ensure the continued security and stability of systems and applications.
Reference: Industry standards such as ISO/IEC 27001 (Information Security Management) highlight the importance of a systematic approach to managing patches, including the role of testing in assessing the effectiveness and impact of patches.
Resources like "Patch Management Best Practices" from the Center for Internet Security (CIS) provide guidance on developing and implementing a patch management program that includes rigorous testing procedures to ensure patches are safely and effectively applied.

Question No : 9


Which statement BEST represents the primary objective of a third party risk assessment:

정답:
Explanation:
The primary objective of a third party risk assessment is to validate that the vendor/service provider has adequate controls in place based on the organization’s risk posture. A third party risk assessment (also known as supplier risk assessment) quantifies the risks associated with third-party vendors and suppliers that provide products or services to your organization1. This assessment is useful for analyzing both new and ongoing supplier relationships. The growing risk of supply chain attacks makes it critical to conduct thorough and regular risk assessments of your third parties. A third party risk assessment helps you identify, measure, and mitigate the potential risks that your third parties pose to your organization, such as data breaches, cyberattacks, compliance violations, operational disruptions, reputational damage, or financial losses. A third party risk assessment also helps you align your third party risk management (TPRM) program with your organization’s risk appetite, policies, standards, and procedures. A third party risk assessment typically involves the following steps1:
Scoping: Define the scope of the assessment based on the type, nature, and criticality of the third party relationship. Determine the relevant risk domains, such as security, privacy, compliance, business continuity, etc.
Data collection: Gather information from the third party using various methods, such as questionnaires, surveys, interviews, audits, tests, or evidence reviews.
Analysis: Analyze the data collected and compare it with your organization’s risk criteria, benchmarks, and best practices. Identify any gaps, weaknesses, or issues in the third party’s controls, processes, or performance.
Reporting: Document the findings and recommendations of the assessment in a clear and concise report. Communicate the results to the relevant stakeholders, such as senior management, business owners, or regulators.
Remediation: Follow up with the third party to ensure that they implement the necessary actions to address the identified risks. Monitor and track the progress and effectiveness of the remediation plan.
Review: Review and update the assessment periodically or whenever there are significant changes in the third party relationship, the risk environment, or the regulatory requirements.
The other statements are not the primary objective of a third party risk assessment, although they may be related or secondary objectives. Assessing the appropriateness of non-disclosure agreements regarding the organization’s systems/data is a legal objective that may be part of the contract negotiation or review process. Determining the scope of the business relationship is a strategic objective that may be part of the vendor selection or due diligence process. Evaluating the risk
posture of all vendors/service providers in the vendor inventory is a holistic objective that may be part of the vendor risk management or governance process.
Reference: 1: Third-Party Risk Assessment: A Practical Guide - BlueVoyant
: What Is Third-Party Risk Management (TPRM)? 2024 Guide | UpGuard
: What is Third-Party Risk Management? | Blog | OneTrust

Question No : 10


Which of the following is a positive aspect of adhering to a secure SDLC?

정답:
Explanation:
A secure SDLC is a framework that integrates security best practices and standards throughout the software development life cycle, from planning to deployment and maintenance. A secure SDLC aims to ensure that security is considered and implemented at every stage of the development process, not just as an afterthought or a compliance check. A secure SDLC can help organizations to achieve the following benefits12:
Reduce the risk of security breaches and incidents by identifying and mitigating vulnerabilities early and continuously
Improve the quality and reliability of software products by ensuring that they meet both the functional and the security requirements
Save time and money by avoiding costly rework, remediation, and reputation damage caused by security flaws
Enhance customer trust and satisfaction by delivering secure and compliant software solutions
Foster a culture of security awareness and responsibility among developers, testers, and other stakeholders
Reference: Secure SDLC | Secure Software Development Life Cycle | Snyk
What is Secure Software Development Life Cycle (SSDLC )? - GeeksforGeeks

Question No : 11


The BEST way to manage Fourth-Nth Party risk is:

정답:
Explanation:
Fourth-Nth party risk refers to the potential threats and vulnerabilities associated with the subcontractors, vendors, or service providers of an organization’s direct third-party partners. This can create a complex network of dependencies and exposures that can affect the organization’s security, data protection, and business resilience. To manage this risk effectively, organizations should conduct comprehensive due diligence on their extended vendor and supplier network, and include contractual stipulations that require notification and approval for any subcontracting activities. This way, the organization can ensure that the subcontractors meet the same standards and expectations as the direct third-party partners, and that they have adequate controls and safeguards in place to protect the organization’s data and systems. Additionally, the organization should monitor and assess the performance and compliance of the subcontractors on a regular basis, and update the contract provisions as needed to reflect any changes in the risk environment.
Reference: Understanding 4th- and Nth-Party Risk: What Do You Need to Know? Best Practices for Fourth and Nth Party Management Fourth-Party Risk Management: Best Practices

Question No : 12


The BEST time in the SDLC process for an application service provider to perform Threat Modeling analysis is:

정답:
Explanation:
Threat modeling is a core element of the Microsoft Security Development Lifecycle (SDL) and a structured approach to identify, quantify, and address the security risks associated with an application12. Threat modeling helps to shape the application’s design, meet the security objectives, and reduce risk1.
The best time to perform threat modeling analysis is before the application design and development activities begin, as this allows the application service provider to:
Communicate about the security design of their systems1.
Analyze the design for potential security issues using a proven methodology1.
Suggest and manage mitigations for security issues1.
Incorporate security requirements into the design2.
Avoid costly rework or redesign later in the SDLC2.
Identify the most critical and relevant threats to focus on2.
Reference: 1: Microsoft Security
Development Lifecycle Threat Modelling1 2: Threat Modeling Process | OWASP Foundation2

Question No : 13


Which statement is NOT a method of securing web applications?

정답:
Explanation:
Web content accessibility guidelines (WCAG) are a set of standards that aim to make web content more accessible to people with disabilities, such as visual, auditory, cognitive, or motor impairments. While WCAG is a good practice for web development and usability, it is not directly related to web application security. WCAG does not address the common security risks that web applications face, such as injection, broken authentication, misconfiguration, or vulnerable components. Therefore, adhering to WCAG is not a method of securing web applications, unlike the other options.
Reference: 4: OWASP Top 10, a standard awareness document for web application security, lists the most critical security risks to web applications and provides best practices to prevent or mitigate them.
5: SANS Institute, a leading provider of cybersecurity training and certification, offers a security checklist for web application technologies (SWAT) that covers best practices for error handling, data protection, configuration, authentication, session management, input and output handling, and access control.
6: Built In, a platform for tech professionals, provides 13 web application security best practices, such as using a web application firewall, keeping track of APIs, enforcing expected application behaviors, and following the OWASP Top 10.

Question No : 14


Which factor is the LEAST important attribute when classifying personal data?

정답:
Explanation:
According to the GDPR, personal data is any information relating to an identified or identifiable natural person (data subject). The GDPR does not consider the volume of data records as a relevant factor for classifying personal data, but rather the nature and context of the data. The GDPR requires data controllers and processors to apply appropriate technical and organizational measures to ensure a level of security appropriate to the risk of processing personal data, taking into account factors such as the state of the art, the costs of implementation, the nature, scope, context and purposes of processing, and the risks of varying likelihood and severity for the rights and freedoms of natural persons. Therefore, the volume of data records is not a decisive attribute for classifying personal data, but rather an indicator of the potential impact of a data breach or misuse.
The other factors listed in the question are more important attributes for classifying personal data, as they relate to the identification, protection, and rights of the data subjects. The data subject category that identifies the data owner refers to the type of natural person whose personal data is processed, such as customers, employees, patients, students, etc. This factor is important for determining the purpose and legal basis of processing, as well as the data subject’s rights and expectations1. The sensitivity level of specific data elements that could identify an individual refers to the degree of harm or discrimination that could result from the disclosure or misuse of such data, such as racial or ethnic origin, political opinions, religious or philosophical beliefs, trade union membership, genetic or biometric data, health data, sex life or sexual orientation, or criminal convictions or offenses2. The GDPR imposes stricter rules and obligations for the processing of such special categories of personal data, as they pose a higher risk to the data subject’s fundamental rights and freedoms. The assignment of a confidentiality level that differentiates public or non-public information refers to the degree of access and disclosure that is permitted or required for the personal data, depending on the data subject’s consent, the legitimate interests of the data controller or processor, or the applicable laws and regulations1. The GDPR requires data controllers and processors to implement data protection by design and by default, meaning that they should only process the personal data that is necessary for the specific purpose and limit the access to those who need to know.
Reference: 4: 5 Types of Data Classification (With Examples) | Indeed.com
7: Special Categories of Personal Data - GDPR EU
[8]: Data Classification for GDPR Explained [Full Breakdown] - DataGrail

Question No : 15


When conducting an assessment of a third party's physical security controls, which of the following represents the innermost layer in a ‘Defense in Depth’ model?

정답:
Explanation:
In the ‘Defense in Depth’ security model, the innermost layer typically focuses on protecting the most sensitive and critical assets, which are often categorized as 'Private internal'. This layer includes security controls and measures that are designed to safeguard the core, confidential aspects of an organization's infrastructure and data. It encompasses controls such as access controls, encryption, and monitoring of sensitive systems and data to prevent unauthorized access and ensure data integrity and confidentiality. The 'Private internal' layer is crucial for maintaining the security of critical information and systems that are essential to the organization's operations and could have the most significant impact if compromised. Implementing robust security measures at this layer is vital for mitigating risks associated with physical access to critical infrastructure and sensitive information.
Reference: Security frameworks and standards, including NIST SP 800-53 (Security and Privacy Controls for Federal Information Systems and Organizations) and the SANS Institute's guidelines on implementing 'Defense in Depth', provide detailed recommendations on securing the innermost layers of an organization's information systems.
Publications such as "Physical Security Principles" by ASIS International offer insights into best practices for securing the private internal layer, including access control systems, surveillance, and intrusion detection mechanisms.

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