매달, 우리는 1000명 이상의 사람들이 시험 준비를 잘하고 시험을 잘 통과할 수 있도록 도와줍니다.
FCSS - Network Security 7.6 Support Engineer 온라인 연습
최종 업데이트 시간: 2026년04월22일
당신은 온라인 연습 문제를 통해 Fortinet FCSS_NST_SE-7.6 시험지식에 대해 자신이 어떻게 알고 있는지 파악한 후 시험 참가 신청 여부를 결정할 수 있다.
시험을 100% 합격하고 시험 준비 시간을 35% 절약하기를 바라며 FCSS_NST_SE-7.6 덤프 (최신 실제 시험 문제)를 사용 선택하여 현재 최신 66개의 시험 문제와 답을 포함하십시오.
정답:
Explanation:
The correct answers are A and D.
The debug output shows:
Sent RADIUS req to server 'RadiusServer': IP=172.25.188.164 ... user="student" using CHAP Result for radius svr 'RadiusServer' 172.25.188.164(0) is 0 Sending result 0 for req 2
The study guide explains that in RADIUS real-time debug, FortiGate shows the IP address of the RADIUS server it is querying. In the example, it says FortiGate “creates an access request to the RADIUS server at IP address 10.0.13.130” and shows the line Sent radius req to server ... IP=10.0.13.130
So in your exhibit, the queried server is clearly 172.25.188.164, which makes A correct.
The study guide also states:
“The message fnbamd_comm_send_result-Sending result 0 indicates that the authentication was successful and that FortiGate received the Access-Accept message.”
Since your exhibit also ends with Sending result 0, that makes D correct.
Why the other options are wrong:
B is wrong because result 0 means authentication successful, not failed
C is wrong because the debug explicitly shows using CHAP, and the study guide lists supported RADIUS schemes as CHAP, PAP, MS-CHAP, and MS-CHAPv2
E is wrong because the study guide says two-factor authentication would involve an Access-Challenge response: “If two-factor authentication is enabled on the server, the response is an Access-Challenge message”
Your exhibit shows successful result 0 / Access-Accept, not a challenge.
So the verified answers are: A, D.
정답:
Explanation:
The correct answer is D.
The study guide shows the ipsmonitor test usage exactly:
1: Display IPS engine information
2: Toggle IPS engine enable/disable status
5: Toggle bypass status
99: Restart all IPS engines and monitor
So diagnose test application ipsmonitor 5 is used to toggle bypass status, which corresponds to enabling IPS bypass mode.
Why the other options are wrong:
A is wrong because disabling the IPS engine is option 2, not 5.
B is wrong because the study guide does not define option 5 as IPS session information.
C is wrong because restarting all IPS engines and monitors is option 99, not 5.
So the verified answer is: D.
정답:
Explanation:
The correct answers are A and D.
The study guide states:
“Application layer test commands do not display information in real time. They display statistics and configuration information about a feature or process. You can also use some of these commands to restart a process or execute a change in its operation.”
This directly proves:
A is correct because they can display statistics and configuration information
D is correct because some of them can restart a process/application
Why the other options are wrong:
B is wrong because the study guide explicitly says application-layer test commands do not display information in real time. Real-time output is done with diagnose debug application ... commands instead.
C is wrong because diagnose debug console enable is related to debug output behavior, not a requirement for application-layer test commands to display output. The study guide does not describe test commands that way.
정답:
Explanation:
The correct answer is A.
The debug output is for an HTTPS request and shows a hostname value. The study guide explains that with SSL certificate inspection, FortiGate extracts the FQDN from either:
“TLS extension server name indication (SNI)”
“SSL certificate common name (CN)”
So the hostname shown in the real-time web-filter debug can be derived from the SNI in the client request or, if needed, from the CN in the server certificate. That makes A correct.
Why the other options are wrong:
B is wrong because the study-guide example for web-filter real-time debug explicitly says: “This slide shows an example of real-time debug output when the URL to categorize isn't in the FortiGuard cache.”
In these debugs, cat=255 appears before the final lookup result, so this does not indicate a local-cache hit.
C is wrong because ftgd-allow is the action, not the profile name. The debug line shows the action as action=9 (ftgd-allow) while the profile shown is profile='default'. FortiOS web-filter logs also use the profile field separately from the action field
D is wrong because the final category shown is url_cat=52, not 255. The study guide’s example shows the same pattern: an initial cat=255 in the request line, followed by the resolved result cat=52 url_cat=52
So the verified answer is: A.
정답:
Explanation:
The correct answers are B and D.
The study guide explains that expectation sessions are pinhole sessions created by session helpers for protocols such as FTP that need additional negotiated connections. It states: “FortiGate created an expectation session and opened the pinhole port for the expected return traffic” and also shows that the firewall “creates an expected (pinhole) session to allow the traffic”
That makes D correct.
For B, the study guide explains the gwy= field in session output: the first value is the gateway to the destination, and the second is the gateway to the source In the exhibit, the original-direction traffic is DNATed here:
hook=pre dir=org act=dnat 10.171.121.38:0->10.200.1.1:60426(10.0.1.10:50365)
So the destination after DNAT is the internal host 10.0.1.10, and the session’s first gwy value corresponds to the next hop toward that destination.
That makes B correct.
Why the other options are wrong:
A is wrong because this is an expectation/session-helper behavior, not an IPS-engine-created session. The study guide ties expectation sessions to helpers such as FTP, not IPS.
C is wrong because 10.200.1.1 is the translated address used before DNAT, not the next hop used to forward the original-direction traffic after translation to the internal destination.
So the verified answers are: B, D.
정답:
Explanation:
The correct answers are C, D, and E.
The study guide lists the exact OSPF adjacency requirements:
“Interfaces of peers are the same type and in the same OSPF area”
“Each peer has a unique router ID”
“OSPF authentication, if enabled, is successful”
These map directly to:
C. OSPF interface network types match
D. Authentication settings match
E. OSPF router IDs are unique
The same study-guide slide also states other requirements such as:
peers’ primary IPs must be in the same subnet with the same mask
hello and dead intervals must match
OSPF MTUs must match
Why the other options are wrong:
A is wrong because link cost matching is not listed as an adjacency requirement. OSPF cost affects path selection, not whether adjacency can form.
B is wrong because interface priority does not need to be unique. Priority is used for DR/BDR election, where the highest priority wins, and ties are broken by router ID.
So the verified answers are: C, D, E.
정답:
Explanation:
The correct answer is D.
The exhibit shows:
session_count=591
clash=162
memory_tension_drop=0
TCP sessions:
166 in NONE state
1 in ESTABLISHED state
3 in SYN_SENT state
2 in TIME_WAIT state
The study guide explains the TCP protocol states and states explicitly:
“When a session is closed by both the sender and receiver, FortiGate keeps that session in the session table for a few seconds, to allow for any out-of-order packets that might arrive after the FIN/ACK packet. This is the state value 5.”
In diagnose sys session stat, the exhibit shows 2 in TIME_WAIT state. Since TIME_WAIT = state value 5, those are the sessions being kept briefly for possible out-of-order packets. That makes D correct.
Why the other options are wrong:
A is wrong because session_count=591 is the total number of sessions, while the TCP sessions shown add up to only 172 (166 + 1 + 3 + 2). So not all sessions in the table are TCP sessions.
B is wrong because the study guide says the number of sessions deleted because of low free memory is shown by memory_tension_drop, and in the exhibit it is 0, not 162.
C is wrong because the study guide defines ephemeral/open TCP sessions as those not fully established, but the exhibit does not say all 166 in NONE state are specifically “waiting to complete the three-way handshake.” The clearest directly supported statement from the displayed states is the 2 TIME_WAIT sessions retained for out-of-order packets. So the verified answer is: D.
정답:
Explanation:
The correct answer is D.
In the exhibit, get router info routing-table database shows both static default routes:
정답:
Explanation:
The correct answer is B.
The study guide explicitly states: “IKE version 2 does not interoperate with IKE version 1, but they share enough of the header format that both versions can unambiguously operate over the same
UDP port.”
That directly proves B.
Why the other options are wrong:
A is wrong because the study guide shows authentication methods as Asymmetric for IKEv2 and Symmetric for IKEv1
C is wrong because the study guide does not say they use the same TCP port; instead, it specifically says they can operate over the same UDP port
D is wrong because the study guide states: “IKEv2 does not use the concept of phase 1 or phase 2”, even though FortiOS CLI/GUI still uses those terms for configuration purposes
정답:
Explanation:
The correct answer is B.
The study guide states that for TCP, the protocol state is a two-digit number. The first digit is the server-side state and is 0 when the session is not subject to inspection. The second digit is the client-
side state. It also shows that value 1 = ESTABLISHED
So, for a normal TCP session with no inspection, proto_state=01 means:
first digit 0 = no inspection
second digit 1 = ESTABLISHED
That makes B correct.
Why the other options are wrong:
A is wrong because for UDP, the study guide says 00 = one-way traffic and 01 = two-way traffic
C is wrong because 10 does not represent the normal established TCP session described in the study guide. The established example shown is based on state value 1, and the guide explicitly highlights proto_state=11 when both server-side and client-side TCP handshakes are completed
D is wrong because for ICMP, the study guide says “the protocol state is always 00” ====
정답:
Explanation:
The correct answer is A.
The study guide explicitly explains the diagnose debug rating table and says that for each server IP, the output shows “The round trip delay”
That means the RTT value represents the time it takes for FortiGate to send a request and receive the reply from that FortiGuard server.
The FortiOS administration guide also confirms this by stating:
“Each server is probed for Round Trip Time (RTT) every two minutes.”
Why the other options are wrong:
B is wrong because packet loss is shown separately by Curr Lost and Total Lost, while RTT is the round-trip delay
C is wrong because license-validation behavior is indicated by flags such as I = Initial, not by the RTT value itself
D is wrong because the documents do not say RTT starts at a fixed value of 10; it is measured dynamically as round-trip delay
So the verified answer is: A.
정답:
Explanation:
The correct answers are A and B.
The exhibit shows:
override: disable
both members are currently in-sync
only port7 appears under HBDEV stats, so it is the active heartbeat interface
the cluster is in HA A-P mode
Why A is correct:
With override disabled, after a failover the new primary keeps that role when the old primary comes back. The FortiOS administration guide states:
“When the primary FortiGate rejoins the cluster the secondary FortiGate continues to operate as the primary FortiGate.”
So if FGVM...649 reboots and FGVM...650 becomes primary, FGVM...650 will remain primary after FGVM...649 rejoins.
Why B is correct:
The study guide states:
“When FortiGate devices configured in an HA cluster lose communication with each other on the heartbeat interface, each FortiGate assumes the role of the primary device.”
The exhibit shows only port7 as the heartbeat device in HBDEV stats
So if port7 is disconnected and heartbeat communication is lost, the cluster can enter a split-brain condition, where both units believe they are primary. The FortiOS administration guide confirms the same behavior: loss of heartbeat communication causes each member to think it is the primary
Why the other options are wrong:
C is wrong because configuration synchronization status is specifically used to detect whether secondary members remain synchronized with the primary. If members are no longer synchronized, the status changes from in-sync to out-of-sync
D is wrong because the study guide explains that during a configuration change, checksums may differ briefly while changes are copied, but it does not describe this as the secondary initiating a “synchronization reset”
So the verified answers are: A, B.
정답:
Explanation:
The correct answers are B and D.
The study guide explains that in the SP Login Dump section, FortiGate is acting as the service provider (SP), and that you should read these fields:
“The IdP SSO URL, from the setting idp-single-sign-on-url in the FortiGate configuration”
“The SP SSO URL, from the setting single-sign-on-url in the FortiGate configuration”
“The IdP Entity ID, from the setting id-entity-id in the FortiGate configuration”
“The SP Entity ID, from the setting entity-id setting in the FortiGate configuration”
In the exhibit:
Destination="https://10.1.10.2/saml-idp/nst/login/" → this is the IdP SSO URL
<lasso:RemoteProviderID>http://10.1.10.2/samlidp/nst/metadata/</lasso:RemoteProviderID> → this is the IdP Entity ID
AssertionConsumerServiceURL="https://10.1.10.254:1003/remote/saml/login/" → this is the SP SSO URL
<saml:Issuer>https://10.1.10.254:1003/remote/saml/metadata/</saml:Issuer> → this is the SP Entity ID
The same study-guide example shows this exact mapping pattern, where:
Destination points to the IdP AssertionConsumerServiceURL and Issuer point to the SP Therefore:
정답:
Explanation:
The correct answer is B.
In the exhibit:
Neighbor 100.64.1.254 shows State/PfxRcd = 1, which means the session is established and the local FortiGate has received 1 prefix
Neighbor 100.64.2.254 shows State/PfxRcd = Active
The study guide explains the BGP states exactly:
Connect: Waiting for a successful three-way TCP connection
Active: Unable to establish the TCP session
OpenSent: Waiting for an OPEN message from the peer
OpenConfirm: Waiting for the keepalive message from the peer
Established: Peers have successfully exchanged OPEN and keepalive messages
It also explains how to read the State/PfxRcd column:
“If the state is not established, this column displays the BGP state. If the state is established, this column displays the number of prefixes that the local FortiGate received from that neighbor.”
Therefore, because neighbor 100.64.2.254 is in Active state, the correct conclusion is that the BGP adjacency cannot form because the TCP session could not be established.
Why the other options are wrong:
A is wrong because BGP can establish adjacencies with multiple neighbors independently; one established neighbor does not block another
C is wrong because BGP adjacency is not established based on neighbor “priority”; the output shows adjacency is established because the session completed and prefixes were exchanged
D is wrong because having two neighbors in the same remote AS is valid in BGP and does not prevent adjacency formation
So the verified answer is: B.
정답:
Explanation:
The correct answers are A and B.
The study guide says:
“If NAT-T is enabled, and there is a FortiGate located in the middle that is running NAT, the sniffer command must use a different filter. In this case, IKE traffic uses UDP port 500, but switches to UDP port 4500 during the tunnel negotiation. Additionally, ESP traffic is encapsulated inside the UDP 4500 channel.”
It also says:
“In some networks, UDP is blocked by firewalls or ISPs. In those cases, you can configure your VPN tunnel to use IKE over TCP in the phase 1 configuration. The default IKE TCP port is 443…”
And the study guide gives the correct capture examples:
No NAT: host <remote-gw> and udp port 500
With NAT and NAT-T: host <remote-gw> and (udp port 500 or udp port 4500)
So:
B is correct because with NAT Traversal enabled, the tunnel may no longer be using only UDP 500. It can move to UDP 4500, so the current filter may miss the traffic.
A is correct because the filter may need to be expanded to include UDP 4500 for NAT-T, or TCP 443 when IKE over TCP is used.
Why the other options are wrong:
C is wrong because restricting the filter to the remote peer IP can make the capture more precise, but it is not required for the sniffer to display output. The problem here is the port/protocol choice, not the lack of a host filter. The study guide examples use host filtering as an aid, not as a requirement.
D is wrong because diagnose debug enable is used to enable real-time debug output for applications, but it does not suppress or invalidate sniffer output. Sniffer capture is a separate command path. Fortinet documentation separately documents diagnose sniffer packet ... for packet capture and diagnose debug enable for debug features.
So the verified answers are: A, B.