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Medical Council of Canada MCCQE 시험

MCCQE Part 1 Exam 온라인 연습

최종 업데이트 시간: 2026년02월14일

당신은 온라인 연습 문제를 통해 Medical Council of Canada MCCQE 시험지식에 대해 자신이 어떻게 알고 있는지 파악한 후 시험 참가 신청 여부를 결정할 수 있다.

시험을 100% 합격하고 시험 준비 시간을 35% 절약하기를 바라며 MCCQE 덤프 (최신 실제 시험 문제)를 사용 선택하여 현재 최신 230개의 시험 문제와 답을 포함하십시오.

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Question No : 1


A 3-year-old boy is brought to the office because he is not using his right arm after a fall from a swing. Radiographs reveal a new fracture and old healing fractures. The parents deny any previous injuries.
In addition to providing care for the fracture, which one of the following is the best next step?

정답:
Explanation:
The clinical presentation ofmultiple fractures at different stages of healingin a young child raisesstrong suspicion of physical abuse(non-accidental trauma). In such situations,mandatory reporting to child protection services is legally and ethically required, even in the absence of parental admission or clear history.
Toronto Notes 2023 C Pediatrics, Child Maltreatment Section:
“Red flags include inconsistent history, delay in seeking care, multiple injuries in various stages of healing, and injuries not consistent with developmental level. Health care professionals arelegally obligatedto report suspected child abuse or neglect to child protection authorities without delay.”
MCCQE1 Objectives (Medical Expert > Pediatrics > 77-2):
"The candidate must be able to recognize when the findings are consistent with child abuse... When child abuse is suspected,the physician has a legal obligation to report to the appropriate child protection agency immediately."
Options B, C, D, and E do not address the immediate child safety risk and legal duty. Social work involvement (E) is supportive but must follow or accompany notification to child protection, not replace it.

Question No : 2


A 25-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 2-hour history of pelvic pain associated with no other symptoms. The first day of her last menstrual period was 14 days ago.
On examination, her vital signs are as follows:
Blood pressure
108/72 mm Hg
Heart rate
110/min
Temperature
37 °C
Abdominal examination reveals rebound tenderness and guarding. Pelvic examination reveals exquisite left adnexal tenderness.
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

정답:
Explanation:
Mid-cycle acute onset pelvic pain with localized adnexal tenderness in a reproductive-age woman suggests a hemorrhagic ovarian cyst, particularly a ruptured one. The hemodynamic parameters are stable, but elevated HR supports acute pain and possible blood loss.
Toronto Notes 2023 C Gynecology / Acute Pelvic Pain:
“Hemorrhagic ovarian cysts present with sudden unilateral pelvic pain, mid-cycle, with guarding and rebound tenderness. Ultrasound is key.”
MCCQE1 Objectives (Gynecology > 82-4: Acute Pelvic Pain):
“Candidates must recognize common causes of acute pelvic pain, including ovarian cysts.”
Diverticulitis (A) is rare in young women and usually LLQ. Appendicitis (B) is more likely RLQ.
Adenomyosis (C) and endometriosis (D) cause chronic cyclical pain, not acute tenderness.

Question No : 3


A 38-year-old marathon runner presents to your office with a 6-month history of increasing right hip pain. The pain is worse with acclivity and has prevented him from running for the last 4 months. He denies fever or chills. His wife adds that she is concerned because he is increasingly disengaged with the family and not interested in other activities he usually enjoys, including sex.
Which one of the following is the best next step in management?

정답:
Explanation:
In a patient presenting with physical symptoms (e.g., hip pain) and prominent psychosocial red flags ― loss of interest, decreased libido, and withdrawal ― the next step is to screen for depression. Somatization is common in mood disorders.
Toronto Notes 2023 C Psychiatry, Depression:
“Patients with depression may present with somatic complaints. A thorough psychosocial assessment is essential in such cases, particularly when symptoms interfere with functioning.”
MCCQE1 Objectives C Psychiatry > Mood Disorders:
“Candidates must consider depression in patients with non-specific physical symptoms and reduced interest or motivation, particularly with social withdrawal.”
Imaging or physiotherapy may be needed later, but the most urgent and informative step is psychiatric screening.

Question No : 4


You are on duty in the Emergency Department when 5 patients are brought in by ambulance after a high-speed motor vehicle collision.
Which one of the following patients requires the most urgent medical care?

정답:
Explanation:
The patient with the angulated thigh, hypotension relative to baseline, and tachycardia likely has a femoral shaft fracture with concealed hemorrhage. This poses an immediate risk of hypovolemic shock and requires urgent assessment and stabilization.
Toronto Notes 2023 C Emergency Medicine, “Trauma Triage and Prioritization”:
“Patients with long bone fractures, especially femoral fractures, are at high risk for hemorrhage and should be prioritized for stabilization and hemorrhage control.”
MCCQE1 Objectives (Surgery > 51-1: Trauma):
“Candidates must prioritize trauma patients based on signs of instability or risk of deterioration, such as tachycardia and occult bleeding.”

Question No : 5


A 64-year-old man presents with a 3-month history of gradually increasing neck pain and stiffness. The pain radiates into his upper back, and he is having difficulty driving because of limitation of neck rotation secondary to pain. Physical examination shows restricted neck motion in all directions and neck muscle spasms. There is no abnormality on neurologic examination. A radiograph shows narrowing of all of the cervical disc spaces with prominent osteophytes.
Which one of the following is the most appropriate next step?

정답:
Explanation:
The presentation is consistent with cervical spondylosis ― a degenerative condition. In the absence of neurologic findings, further imaging beyond plain radiography is not warranted. Management includes conservative measures such as physiotherapy and analgesia.
Toronto Notes 2023 C Rheumatology, Cervical Spondylosis:
“Patients with typical cervical spondylosis and no red flags (e.g., neurologic deficits) do not require MRI. Treatment is conservative. Radiographs showing disc space narrowing and osteophytes confirm diagnosis.”
MCCQE1 Objectives C Internal Medicine > Musculoskeletal Disorders:
“Candidates must recognize typical degenerative spine disorders and avoid unnecessary investigations when clinical findings are straightforward.”
MRI (B) is useful if myelopathy or radiculopathy is suspected. CT (A), EMG (C), and LP (D) are not indicated here.

Question No : 6


A mother brings her 10-year-old son for his well-child check-up. She mentions that her 38-year-old husband has just had a heart attack due to high cholesterol levels and wants information regarding prevention of cardiovascular disease for her son.
Which one of the following is the best approach to managing this problem?

정답:
Explanation:
Children with a first-degree relative who has premature coronary artery disease or hypercholesterolemia should undergo fasting lipid screening between ages 2C10. Since the child is 10, screening is indicated.
Toronto Notes 2023 C Pediatrics, “Preventive Care in Children”:
“Lipid screening is recommended for children #2 years old with a family history of early cardiovascular disease or hypercholesterolemia.”
MCCQE1 Objectives (Pediatrics > 78-1: Preventive Medicine):
“Candidates must screen children at high risk of cardiovascular disease appropriately, including lipid profile for familial hyperlipidemia.”
Diet and exercise counseling may follow screening, but testing is the first step. Reassurance alone (C) is inappropriate. Homocysteine (E) and HbA1c are not first-line tests in this setting.

Question No : 7


A 25-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with diffuse abdominal pain and anorexia. He was tackled in a football game yesterday.
He reports a 3-week history of sore throat and fatigue. Vital signs are as follows:
Blood pressure: 95/45 mm Hg
Heart rate: 96/min
Temperature: 37.6°C
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

정답:
Explanation:
This patient presents with hypotension, diffuse abdominal pain, and a history of contact sports injury with preceding symptoms of infectious mononucleosis (sore throat, fatigue). The spleen is commonly enlarged in mononucleosis, making it vulnerable to rupture after even minor trauma.
Toronto Notes 2023 C General Surgery and Infectious Diseases Sections:
“Splenic rupture is a known complication of mononucleosis, particularly after trauma. Symptoms may include diffuse abdominal pain, hypotension, and signs of hemorrhagic shock.”
MCCQE1 Objectives (Surgery > 84-1: Abdominal Trauma):
“Candidates should identify splenic rupture as a cause of hypotension and abdominal pain following blunt abdominal trauma, especially in patients with splenomegaly.”
Appendicitis (B) would present with localized right lower quadrant pain. Pneumonia (C) and pyelonephritis
(D) would present with respiratory or urinary symptoms. Ruptured duodenum (E) is much less likely without specific trauma to that region or signs of peritonitis.

Question No : 8


1 °C
Oxygen saturation
95%, room air
On physical examination, the patient's skin is dry, flushed, and warm to the touch. He has a diffuse erythematous papular rash. Findings of a thorough physical examination are otherwise unremarkable. An electrocardiogram shows sinus tachycardia.
Which one of the following is the best next step?

정답:
Explanation:
This patient has classic features of exertional heat stroke―hyperthermia, hypotension, CNS symptoms (collapse), and hot, dry skin. A key complication of heat stroke is rhabdomyolysis, which can cause renal failure. Serum creatine kinase (CK) is the best next diagnostic step to confirm muscle breakdown.
Toronto Notes 2023 C Emergency Medicine, “Environmental Exposures”:
“In heat stroke, check for rhabdomyolysis (#CK), renal impairment, and coagulopathy. Prompt cooling and hydration are critical.”
MCCQE1 Objectives (Internal Medicine > 59-3: Environmental and Toxic Exposures):
“Candidates must recognize heat-related illnesses and investigate for complications such as rhabdomyolysis and acute kidney injury.”
CT head (C) is not indicated unless persistent neurological symptoms. TSH (B), CRP (D), and blood cultures
(E) are irrelevant to acute exertional hyperthermia.

Question No : 9


A 72-year-old man presents to your clinic with worsening lower leg edema. He has hypertension, type 2 diabetes, and a history of heavy drinking. On examination, he is pale and has a BMI of 35.
Vital signs are as follows:
Blood pressure: 110/60 mm Hg
Heart rate: 102/min
Temperature: Afebrile
His jugular venous pressure is 4 cm above the sternal angle. Cardiac auscultation is normal, and his lungs are clear. His liver is not palpable; he has abdominal distension, bulging flanks, and pitting edema below the knees.
While awaiting test results, which one of the following is the best next step?

정답:
Explanation:
This patient has signs suggestive of decompensated liver cirrhosis (ascites, peripheral edema, low-normal BP, alcohol use, abdominal distension). Sodium restriction is the cornerstone of first-line management to prevent fluid retention in cirrhotic ascites.
Toronto Notes 2023 C Gastroenterology, “Cirrhosis and Ascites” Section:
“Sodium restriction (<2 g/day) is the most important non-pharmacologic management for ascites. Fluid restriction is added only in cases of severe hyponatremia.”
MCCQE1 Objectives (Internal Medicine > 76-5: Liver Disease):
“Candidates must manage ascites conservatively using sodium restriction, with diuretics added as needed.”
Lactulose (E) is used for hepatic encephalopathy, not ascites. Ramipril (B) may worsen renal function in cirrhosis. Nadolol (C) is used for variceal bleeding prophylaxis. Compression stockings (D) are not helpful in ascites-related edema.

Question No : 10


A 33-year-old man with severe bacterial meningitis is intubated and unresponsive in the Intensive Care Unit. If he receives immediate treatment, his prognosis is excellent. If he does not, he will likely die. Three years ago, the patient had Huntington disease diagnosed, but he has been asymptomatic since then. His advance directive, which was made before this hospitalization, states that he should be allowed to die if he contracts a life-threatening illness. His parents demand that he be treated for the meningitis.
Which one of the following is the best next step?

정답:
Explanation:
An advance directive is a legally binding document that outlines a competent person's preferences regarding future medical care. If the patient clearly stated a refusal of treatment in the event of a life-threatening condition, this directive must be followed, even if the patient is currently incapacitated and family disagrees.
Toronto Notes 2023 C Ethics and Law:
“Advance directives must be respected when valid, clear, and applicable. Substitute decision-makers cannot override them.”
MCCQE1 Objectives (ELOM > 90-4: Informed Consent and Advance Directives):
“Candidates must apply valid advance directives to guide care for incapacitated patients.”
B (parents as SDMs) is incorrect if an advance directive exists. A and D are irrelevant―capacity has already been documented. C is unnecessary when an advance directive is clear.

Question No : 11


A patient's mother comes to you with a prospective cohort study linking autism to the measles, mumps and rubella vaccine. After reviewing the study carefully, you question the results because of problems with the study design and execution.
Which one of the following sources of error would be most important in the study design or execution?

정답:
Explanation:
Recruiting participants from an autism seminar introduces selection bias. This non-random selection increases the likelihood of overestimating associations due to pre-existing beliefs or exposures in that subgroup.
Toronto Notes 2023 C Epidemiology:
“Selection bias occurs when participants are not representative of the general population, as in recruitment from disease-specific support groups.”
MCCQE1 Objectives (Population Health > 65-2: Study Design and Appraisal):
“Candidates must recognize sources of bias in epidemiologic studies, including selection bias due to non-representative recruitment.”
Recall bias (D) is more of a concern in retrospective studies. Sponsorship (B) may create perception bias but is not a flaw in methodology itself. Standard error reporting (A) is normal. Not accounting for confounders
(E) matters but recruitment source is more directly biasing.

Question No : 12


8 °C, oral (36.5C37.5)
Which one of the following places this patient at risk for sepsis?

정답:
Explanation:
Patients with sickle cell anemia often develop functional asplenia due to repeated splenic infarction. The spleen plays a critical role in clearing encapsulated organisms such as Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, and Neisseria meningitidis. Functional asplenia significantly increases the risk of overwhelming sepsis.
Toronto Notes 2023 C Hematology, “Sickle Cell Disease”:
“Functional asplenia is common in sickle cell disease and increases the risk for sepsis due to impaired clearance of encapsulated bacteria.”
MCCQE1 Objectives (Pediatrics > 77-2: Hematology):
“Candidates must recognize that patients with functional asplenia are at increased risk for sepsis and require prompt evaluation for fever.”
Neutrophil dysfunction (B) and immunoglobulin deficiency (C) are not typical features of sickle cell anemia.
Chronic anemia (D) and iron overload (E) do not directly increase sepsis risk.

Question No : 13


A 42-year-old man presents to your office with acute left knee pain and difficulty walking. He denies any trauma. He reports 2 painful episodes involving his right great toe in the last year. He smokes half a pack of cigarettes a day and drinks at least 3 beers daily. He has a temperature of 38.2°C and has a red, swollen and warm left knee.
Which one of the following is the best next step?

정답:
Explanation:
The patient presents with an acutely inflamed joint and fever, raising concern for septic arthritis. A history of gout does not exclude infection. The first and most urgent step in any monoarthritis with systemic signs (fever) is joint aspiration to assess for crystals, white cells, and organisms.
Toronto Notes 2023 C Rheumatology, “Monoarthritis”:
“Always rule out septic arthritis in a hot, swollen joint, especially when fever is present. Joint aspiration is essential to differentiate infection from crystal arthropathy.”
MCCQE1 Objectives (Medicine > Rheumatology > 49-1):
“Candidates must identify red flags for septic arthritis and understand that arthrocentesis is the first step in diagnosis and management.”
Initiating NSAIDs or acetaminophen without diagnosis (C, D) can delay appropriate care. Radiographs (B) do not help differentiate gout from infection acutely. Blood cultures (E) may help, but aspiration is more diagnostic.

Question No : 14


You are treating a 78-year-old man for recent onset of diarrhea, tenesmus, and minor bleeding when he wipes. He has a history of prostate cancer that was treated by radiotherapy. Rectal examination findings are normal. Colonoscopy reveals a pale rectum with ulcerations and areas of mucosal hemorrhage.
Which one of the following is the most likely explanation for this clinical presentation?

정답:
Explanation:
Radiation proctitis is a well-known complication of pelvic radiation therapy (e.g., for prostate cancer). It presents months to years after treatment with rectal bleeding, tenesmus, and mucosal ulceration on colonoscopy.
Toronto Notes 2023 C Gastroenterology, “Radiation-Induced GI Injury”:
“Radiation proctitis presents with rectal bleeding, tenesmus, urgency. Colonoscopy shows pale, friable mucosa, ulcerations, and telangiectasia.”
MCCQE1 Objectives (Gastroenterology > 47-2: GI Bleeding and Complications):
“Candidates must recognize radiation proctitis based on history of radiation and characteristic endoscopic findings.”
Ulcerative colitis (B) usually starts younger and is more diffuse. Diverticulosis (C) affects the left colon and causes painless bleeding. Recurrent prostate cancer (D) and rectal cancer (E) would show mass or infiltration.

Question No : 15


A 24-year-old woman has had several episodes of left lower lobe pneumonia. She has a chronic productive cough with occasional blood-streaked sputum. Physical examination is normal except for rales at the left base. Chest radiograph shows a linear infiltrate in this area.
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

정답:
Explanation:
Bronchiectasis is characterized by recurrent localized pneumonia, chronic productive cough, and hemoptysis.
A linear infiltrate that persists in the same area suggests localized airway damage―typical of bronchiectasis.
Toronto Notes 2023 C Respirology:
“Bronchiectasis presents with recurrent infections in the same location, productive cough, and hemoptysis. Chest X-ray may show linear opacities; high-resolution CT is diagnostic.”
MCCQE1 Objectives (Respiratory > 45-1: Chronic Respiratory Symptoms):
“Candidates must investigate recurrent pneumonias and consider bronchiectasis, especially if localized.”
Chronic bronchitis (A) presents bilaterally. Mitral stenosis (B) may cause hemoptysis but not localized infiltrates. TB (E) usually affects upper lobes. Infarction (C) is acute and not recurrent.

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