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Zscaler ZDTE 시험

Zscaler Digital Transformation Engineer 온라인 연습

최종 업데이트 시간: 2025년12월31일

당신은 온라인 연습 문제를 통해 Zscaler ZDTE 시험지식에 대해 자신이 어떻게 알고 있는지 파악한 후 시험 참가 신청 여부를 결정할 수 있다.

시험을 100% 합격하고 시험 준비 시간을 35% 절약하기를 바라며 ZDTE 덤프 (최신 실제 시험 문제)를 사용 선택하여 현재 최신 60개의 시험 문제와 답을 포함하십시오.

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Question No : 1


Which protocol allows users to configure a passwordless authentication method for their ZIdentity account?

정답:
Explanation:
Zscaler Identity (ZIdentity) supports modern, phishing-resistant passwordless authentication using the FIDO2 standard. FIDO2 combines Web Authentication (WebAuthn) and the Client to Authenticator Protocol (CTAP2) to enable users to authenticate with security keys or built-in platform authenticators (such as biometric sensors) without transmitting or storing a reusable password. The Digital Transformation Engineer documentation explains that when a user registers a FIDO2 authenticator with ZIdentity, the service stores a public key tied to that device and account. Future logins are validated using a cryptographic challengeC response, providing strong protection against credential theft and replay attacks.
By contrast, SAML (option B) and OIDC (option C) are federation protocols used for single sign-on (SSO) and identity delegation between an identity provider and service providers; they do not themselves define how passwordless authentication is performed. They can carry assertions from an IdP that might use FIDO2 behind the scenes, but SAML and OIDC are not the passwordless method. SCIM (option D) is a provisioning standard for creating, updating, and deprovisioning identities and groups, not an authentication protocol.
Therefore, the only option that directly represents the protocol enabling passwordless login to a ZIdentity account is FIDO2.

Question No : 2


A customer requires 2 Gbps of throughput through the GRE tunnels to Zscaler.
Which is the ideal architecture?

정답:
Explanation:
Zscaler design guidance for GRE connectivity emphasizes three key principles: terminate GRE on border (edge) devices, avoid NAT on GRE source addresses, and scale bandwidth by using multiple tunnels. In Zscaler documentation and engineering training, each GRE tunnel is typically sized for up to about 1 Gbps of throughput. For a 2 Gbps requirement, customers are advised to deploy at least two primary GRE tunnels, with two additional backup tunnels for redundancy and failover.
These tunnels should terminate on border routers that own public IP addresses, ensuring optimal routing and simplifying troubleshooting. Zscaler specifically recommends that the public source IPs used for GRE must not be translated by NAT, because the Zscaler cloud must see the original, registered public IP to associate tunnels with the correct organization and enforce policy. Enabling NAT on GRE traffic can break tunnel establishment and lead to asymmetric or unpredictable routing.
Using internal routers introduces extra hops and complexity and often requires NAT or policy-based routing, which goes against recommended best practices. Similarly, any architecture with NAT enabled on GRE traffic conflicts with Zscaler’s published requirements. Therefore, the ideal and recommended design for 2 Gbps via GRE is two primary and two backup GRE tunnels from border routers with NAT disabled.

Question No : 3


When using a Domain Joined posture element to allow access in a ZPA Access Policy, which statement is true?

정답:
Explanation:
The Domain Joined posture element in ZPA evaluates whether a device belongs to a specific Active Directory domain. ZPA performs this evaluation using the device’s local posture signals, either through the Zscaler Client Connector posture engine or through the browser-based posture evaluation framework used in ZPA Browser Access. When a user connects via Browser Access, ZPA can still determine domain membership by inspecting the allowed browser posture attributes provided by the endpoint, enabling device-based Zero Trust controls without requiring a full Client Connector installation.
Linux endpoints do not support domain-joined posture verification, making option A incorrect. Domain join validation is performed at the device level, not through the Identity Provider, because IdPs validate users, not device domain status, eliminating option D. ZPA’s posture configuration allows you to define multiple domains within a single posture profile, so creating a second posture profile is unnecessary, making option C incorrect.
Therefore, the correct statement is that ZPA Browser Access can determine whether the device is joined to the specified domain, which aligns with the expected behavior of the domain-joined posture element.

Question No : 4


What capabilities within Zscaler External Attack Surface Management (EASM) are specifically designed to uncover and assess domains that are intentionally created to resemble your legitimate brand or websites?

정답:
Explanation:
Zscaler External Attack Surface Management (EASM) includes a dedicated capability called Lookalike Domains. Zscaler defines lookalike domains as fraudulent or fake domains intentionally created by threat actors to mimic your legitimate domains and brand presence, often for phishing, credential theft, or brand abuse.
Within the EASM portal, the Lookalike Domains pages and widgets present a curated list of suspicious domains that closely resemble your seed or official domains. Analysts can review exposure scores, registrar details, hosting information, and other attributes to determine which of these domains pose the highest risk and warrant takedown or additional monitoring.
This feature is specifically designed for external risk and brand-protection use cases: it highlights where attackers are impersonating your organization on the public internet, which is a core component of digital-risk and external-attack-surface management. While words such as “fake,” “mimic,” or “spoofing” may be used generically in security discussions, “Lookalike Domains” is the exact term and feature name Zscaler uses in the EASM product and documentation. Options A, B, and C do not correspond to a named EASM capability and therefore are not correct in the ZDTE context.

Question No : 5


How can Zscaler ThreatParse, in conjunction with information about the MITRE ATTandCK framework, assist security analysts in determining the attacker's objectives?

정답:
Explanation:
ThreatParse is part of Zscaler’s advanced cyberthreat analysis capabilities, used primarily within Zscaler Deception and related SecOps workflows. Zscaler describes ThreatParse as an investigative engine that takes raw attack or event logs and “reconstructs” the attack sequence, summarizing what happened and translating the data into plain, human-readable language so even junior analysts can quickly understand the incident.
In addition, ThreatParse enriches these reconstructed attacks with structured information tied to the MITRE ATTandCK framework, including tactic and technique identifiers plus an associated risk score. This linkage helps analysts recognize why the attacker is performing certain actions (for example, credential access, lateral movement, or data exfiltration) rather than just what they did.
By combining natural-language reconstruction with MITRE ATTandCK context, ThreatParse effectively turns low-level events into a clear narrative aligned with attacker tactics and objectives. Analysts can quickly see which stage of the kill chain the adversary is in, the severity of the behavior, and which threats demand immediate attention. Options B and C are incorrect because ThreatParse does not perform financial-loss modeling or generic risk-management recommendations; option D is inaccurate because its primary value is narrative reconstruction plus ATTandCK mapping and risk scoring, not simply prioritizing logs by “latest campaign.”

Question No : 6


An IT administrator is reviewing the recently configured ZDX module in their environment and checks the performance data on the dashboard. The administrator notices that no software inventory has populated.
What could be a probable reason?

정답:
Explanation:
Zscaler Digital Experience (ZDX) relies on Zscaler Client Connector to collect device and application telemetry from endpoints. Performance metrics (such as device, network, and application scores) are enabled as part of the core ZDX deployment, which explains why the administrator can already see performance data on the dashboard. However, software inventory is an additional inventory feature that must be explicitly enabled in the ZDX administration settings.
ZDX documentation describes an “Inventory Settings” page where administrators must turn on a setting such as “Collect Software Inventory Data.” When this option is enabled and the minimum supported versions of Client Connector and the ZDX module are present, Client Connector begins collecting installed software details and sending this inventory to the ZDX cloud for visualization.
If the collection toggle is left disabled, ZDX will continue to show performance metrics but no entries appear under Software Inventory or related views, even though licensing and versions are otherwise correct. The other options listed either relate to licensing, generic EDR conflicts, or a specific client version and do not match the documented dependency on enabling software-inventory collection. Therefore, the most accurate reason is that the ZDX client (via policy) is not configured to collect inventory data.

Question No : 7


A contractor is visiting an organization for a maintenance task. The administrator does not have a spare laptop to give them.
How will the administrator provide secure access for the contractor?

정답:
Explanation:
Zscaler’s Digital Transformation material is very clear that third-party admins, vendors, and contractors needing temporary, high-privilege access from unmanaged devices are a primary use case for Privileged Remote Access (PRA). PRA is built on ZPA and delivers a clientless remote desktop gateway: contractors simply use an HTML5-capable browser to reach RDP, SSH, or similar consoles without installing an agent or being placed on the internal network.
The study content explains that PRA enforces least-privilege access on a per-application or per-system basis, with capabilities such as time-bound access windows, credential vaulting/mapping (so credentials are never
exposed), and full session recording and monitoring for audit and compliance. This directly matches the scenario of a short-term maintenance task from a contractor’s own laptop.
By contrast, SD-WAN, Branch Connector, and Cloud Connector are connectivity constructs for sites and workloads, not for granting interactive, privileged access to individual admins on unmanaged endpoints. They don’t solve the governance, session control, and just-in-time access requirements highlighted in the ZDTE content for third-party access. Therefore, Zscaler positions Privileged Remote Access as the correct and recommended approach here.

Question No : 8


Any Zscaler Client Connector (ZCC) App Profile must include which of the following?

정답:
Explanation:
Within the Zscaler Client Connector administration portal, an App Profile defines how the client behaves for a set of users or devices. A key element of any App Profile is the associated Forwarding Profile. The Forwarding Profile tells the Zscaler Client Connector how to handle traffic in different network conditions: for example, whether to send traffic through Z-Tunnel 2.0 to ZIA and/or ZPA, rely on a PAC file, or bypass Zscaler when on trusted networks.
When you create or edit an App Profile, selecting a Forwarding Profile is mandatory because it determines how user traffic will actually reach the Zscaler cloud. Without a Forwarding Profile, the App Profile would not know which forwarding mode to use, and the client would have no consistent instructions on when and how to tunnel or bypass traffic. In practice, customers often define multiple Forwarding Profiles (for example, “ZIA-only,” “ZPA-only,” or “ZIA and ZPA”) and then bind them to different App Profiles for different user groups or device types.
“Bypass,” “authentication,” or “exception” profiles are not separate required profile objects in the ZCC policy model. Any bypass or exception behavior is defined inside the forwarding and app profile logic, not as standalone mandatory profiles. Therefore, a Forwarding Profile is the one element that every ZCC App Profile must include.

Question No : 9


Which Zscaler technology can be used to enhance your cloud data security by providing comprehensive visibility and management of data at rest within public clouds?

정답:
Explanation:
Zscaler Data Security Posture Management (DSPM) is specifically designed to discover, classify, and protect data at rest across public cloud environments such as object stores, databases, and other cloud-native services. Zscaler’s DSPM solution continuously scans cloud data stores to identify where sensitive data resides, who can access it, how it is shared, and whether it violates corporate or regulatory policies, so security teams gain full visibility into their cloud data landscape and can remediate risks at scale.
In the broader Zscaler Data Protection portfolio, DSPM is highlighted as the capability that extends protection beyond inline traffic to data at rest in SaaS and public clouds, complementing DLP and malware controls that secure data in motion. Cloud Sandbox (option B) focuses on detonating suspicious files to detect zero-day malware; CASB (option C) secures SaaS usage and API-based access; and SSPM (option D) concentrates on assessing and fixing misconfigurations in SaaS applications. None of these options are as tightly aligned to continuous discovery and posture management of public-cloud data at rest as DSPM.
Therefore, the Zscaler technology that enhances cloud data security by providing comprehensive visibility and management of data at rest in public clouds is Data Security Posture Management (DSPM).

Question No : 10


An organization wants to upload internal PII (personally identifiable information) into the Zscaler cloud for blocking without fear of compromise.
Which of the following technologies can be used to help with this?

정답:
Explanation:
Zscaler’s advanced data protection stack includes Exact Data Match (EDM), Indexed Document Match (IDM), dictionaries, and predefined DLP engines. Zscaler describes EDM as a technique that “fingerprints” sensitive values―such as PII from structured data sources (databases or spreadsheets)―so the platform can detect and block exact matches to those values while greatly reducing false positives.
With EDM, an on-premises index tool hashes the sensitive fields (for example, names, IDs, or other PII) and then uploads only these hashes―not the readable PII itself―into the Zscaler cloud. Zscaler documentation emphasizes that only hashed fingerprints are sent, allowing organizations to protect internal data “without having to transfer that data to the cloud” in plain form. This directly addresses the requirement to block exfiltration of internal PII without fear of compromise.
Dictionaries and core DLP engines focus on pattern- or keyword-based detection (such as generic PII patterns) rather than matching exact records from an internal dataset. IDM, on the other hand, fingerprints whole documents or forms (for example, templates or high-value documents) rather than row-level PII records. Therefore, for uploading organization-specific PII in a privacy-preserving, hashed form to enable precise blocking, EDM is the correct technology.
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Question No : 11


Which report provides valuable visibility and insight into end-user activity involving sensitive data on endpoints?

정답:
Explanation:
In Zscaler, the Endpoint DLP report is specifically designed to give security teams visibility into how end users interact with sensitive data on their endpoints (laptops, desktops, etc.). This report aggregates activity such as copying, saving, printing, uploading, or otherwise handling sensitive content that is detected and classified by Zscaler Endpoint DLP. It focuses on data risk rather than just malware or traffic volumes, so it shows which files, users, and devices are involved in policy matches, along with the context of each event.
Unlike a generic malware or data usage report, the Endpoint DLP report is tightly aligned with DLP policies and data classifications you configure (such as PII, financial data, source code, or custom patterns). This allows you to quickly see which policies are triggering on endpoints, which channels or applications are most frequently involved, and where to fine-tune rules or add additional controls. Because it is endpoint-focused, it covers scenarios even when users are off the corporate network, giving a unified view across inline and endpoint DLP enforcement. For exam purposes, this is why Endpoint DLP report is the correct answer.

Question No : 12


What are the valid options as criteria to create an alert rule in ZDX?

정답:
Explanation:
Zscaler Digital Experience (ZDX) uses web probes to measure application performance from the user’s perspective. Official ZDX reference material and EDU/ZDTE study guides describe the four key web-probe metrics as Page Fetch Time (PFT), DNS Time, Server Response Time (Time to First Byte), and Availability. These same metrics are explicitly called out in training and exam prep as the values that can be used when defining application-level alert rules (for example, “DNS Time > X ms” or “Server Response Time > Y ms”).
ZDX documentation also explains that each alert rule type (Application, Device, Network, or Call Quality) has its own metrics and criteria, and that application alerts are driven by web-probe metrics like DNS Time and Server Response Time, while network alerts use CloudPath metrics such as latency and packet loss. Because both DNS Time and Server Response Time are application-probe metrics, they can legitimately be used together as criteria in an application-type alert rule.
By contrast, combinations that mix web-probe metrics with network-only metrics (like Packet Loss Rate) or vaguely defined “Network Response Time” do not reflect how ZDX structures its alert criteria per type. Therefore, among the listed options, the pair that correctly represents valid ZDX alert criteria for application monitoring is DNS Time and Server Response Time.

Question No : 13


A customer wants to set up an alert rule in ZDX to monitor the Wi-Fi signal on newly deployed laptops.
What type of alert rule should they create?

정답:
Explanation:
Zscaler Digital Experience (ZDX) organizes its telemetry and alerting around key domains: Application, Network, and Device. Wi-Fi signal strength is a client-side characteristic of the endpoint itself, measured from the user’s device, not from the network path or the application service. In the ZDX training content, Wi-Fi signal, Wi-Fi link speed, CPU, memory, and similar metrics are clearly categorized under Device health.
When creating an alert rule to monitor newly deployed laptops, the administrator should therefore choose a Device-type alert and then select Wi-Fi signalCrelated metrics and thresholds. This allows ZDX to trigger alerts whenever the Wi-Fi signal on those endpoints falls below an acceptable level, helping operations teams quickly identify poor local wireless conditions that degrade user experience.
Network alerts are intended for end-to-end path health (latency, packet loss, DNS resolution, gateway reachability, etc.), and Application alerts focus on performance and availability of specific apps or services. “Interface” as a standalone alert type is not how ZDX structures its top-level alert categories; interface-related metrics are surfaced as device-side attributes. Consequently, the correct classification for Wi-Fi signal monitoring in ZDX is a Device alert rule.

Question No : 14


The Zscaler for Users - Engineer (EDU-202) learning path consists of various solutions covered in eleven courses.
Which of the following topics is out of scope for the Zscaler for Users - Engineer learning path?

정답:
Explanation:
Official EDU-202 materials describe the Engineer path as focusing on advanced architecture, connectivity, platform, access control, cyberthreat protection, data protection, risk management, ZDX, and Zero Trust Automation. The published learning outcomes explicitly include: discussing the architecture of the Zscaler platform and its API infrastructure; configuring advanced connectivity options; and configuring advanced cybersecurity services and Zscaler Digital Experience (ZDX)―including application monitoring, call quality, probes, diagnostics, alerts, and role-based administration. These map directly to options A, C, and D, which align to Zscaler Architecture, Cyberthreat/Access Control Services (IPS, DNS Control, Tenant Restrictions, segmentation), and ZDX content in the EDU-202 outline.
By contrast, Client Connector App Store “version enablement” and controlling which build is available when users manually or automatically update the app is documented as an administration task in the Client Connector help and is typically taught in the Essentials/Administrator (EDU-200) path, not in the Engineer path. Those materials show how to use the App Store to enable builds and control available versions, positioning it as operational client management rather than an advanced Engineer-level topic. Consequently, option B is considered out of scope for EDU-202 in the ZDTE context.
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Question No : 15


What happens if a provisioning key is deleted in ZPA?

정답:
Explanation:
In Zscaler Private Access, a provisioning key is a unique text string generated for an App Connector (or Private Service Edge) group and is used during enrollment to bind that connector to the correct group and PKI trust chain. The Zscaler Digital Transformation training material emphasizes that the provisioning key acts as the “identity anchor” for connectors in that group: it’s what the ZPA cloud uses to authenticate the connector at enrollment and associate it to the right configuration and policy context.
When that key is deleted, ZPA effectively invalidates the trust relationship for any connectors that were enrolled with it. In practice, these connectors are treated as revoked and must be removed and re-enrolled using a new provisioning key to restore a healthy, supportable state. The key is not archived for later reuse, and it does not automatically regenerate. Deletion is intentionally destructive so that, if a key is lost or suspected to be compromised, an administrator can immediately ensure that all connectors tied to that key are no longer trusted and must be re-provisioned, which aligns with zero trust and least-privilege principles.

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